Verse 91854aa;Nkyuu;N ho


G2

1
if only/emphatically this is 'to test', then what do they call 'to torment'?
2 a
when you've become the enemy's, then why would [there] be a 'test' of me?
2 b
when you've become the enemy's, then why would [this] be a test of me?

References
Arshi, Imtiyaz Ali Ghazal# 127
Raza, Kalidas Gupta 449-50
Hamid Ali Khan Open Image

Everybody uses (2a), a straightforward reading that works perfectly well. When the beloved has already given herself over to some Rival, then she can't claim that this is a 'test' of the lover-- it can only be called a form of torment. She should give it up, stop showing this wanton cruelty, and at least leave the lover alone. But if we shift the stress from 'test' to 'me', as in (2b), then we find another enjoyable meaning as well. The grammar of (2b) is , with the as the implicit subject. I take the (permissibly omitted) 'this' to refer to the beloved's having given herself to the enemy, which is the nearest and most obvious antecedent. And this reading emphasizes the -- 'If you've so flagrantly flunked your own faithfulness test (by giving yourself to the enemy), then it's not as if you could even pretend to pass this off as a test of me!'. This reading offers a rare and well-deserved sneer at the beloved's faithless behavior. graphics/torment.jpg