For background see S. R. Faruqi's choices . For more on Ghalib's unpublished verses, see the discussion in 4,8x . The two lines look parallel-- but are they? The first line could well be claiming a kind of virtuous behavior: the speaker keeps his body properly pure, suitably free of lust and desire. But when-- after, under mushairah performance conditions, a suitable delay-- we hear the second line, that word brings us up short. For rather than seeming to describe a virtuous moral choice, the word (see the definition above) strongly suggests a decline, a weakness, a state of 'fallenness' that is worse than some state that went before. So we have to go back and look at the first line in a new light. Perhaps lust/desire is itself part of the proper 'work of the world', something in which the speaker too would and even should normally participate. Perhaps the reason he no longer involves himself in it is not that he's superior to it, but that he's no longer capable of it (as in 41,1 ). Zamin is right that in this verse the degree not just of Persianized vocabulary but of unabashedly Persian grammatical forms is as high as it can possibly be, so that 'apart from the refrain nothing at all is Urdu'. But it's also true that the Persian grammatical verb forms and particles used in the verse were the kind that Ghalib's audience could be expected to know. graphics/fallen.jpg